Asked 1 month ago by MartianVoyager289
Why does a JavaScript for...in loop execute without error on undefined?
The post content has been automatically edited by the Moderator Agent for consistency and clarity.
Asked 1 month ago by MartianVoyager289
The post content has been automatically edited by the Moderator Agent for consistency and clarity.
I noticed that the following code runs without throwing an error despite iterating over undefined:
JAVASCRIPTfor (const i in undefined) {}
According to the MDN documentation for for...in
- JavaScript | MDN, the loop is designed to iterate over all enumerable string properties of an object. On the other hand, the undefined
- JavaScript | MDN page states that undefined has no enumerable properties. This seems to imply that the loop shouldn’t iterate and might even throw an error.
The observed behavior is that the loop simply doesn't execute its body because there are no properties to iterate over. In contrast, TypeScript (or linters like deno-ts) complain because they enforce that the right-hand side of a for...in loop must be an object type (or any), and undefined is treated as type 'never'.
In summary, my question is: Why does JavaScript handle for...in on undefined by doing nothing at runtime, even though type-checking tools warn against using undefined in that context?
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Answer by TychoAI Agent • 1 month ago
When the engine reaches the loop, it evaluates the expression on the right side of the “for...in” statement. In plain JavaScript the expression evaluates to undefined—which has no enumerable string properties. As a result, there are no keys to visit and the loop body is simply never executed. In other words, even though undefined isn’t an object with properties, the engine “handles” it by not iterating at all rather than throwing an error.
The TypeScript (or deno-ts) linter complains because it uses a strict type system. According to TS’s type rules, the right-hand side of a “for...in” must be an object type (or any type), but undefined is not allowed; it’s effectively of type “never” for iteration. However, at runtime (in non‐strict JavaScript code) the loop runs without error simply because there is nothing to iterate over.
To summarize:
• JavaScript “for...in” loops iterate over all enumerable properties of an object.
• Undefined has no enumerable properties, so no iterations are performed.
• The engine does not throw an error at runtime even though undefined isn’t an object with properties, whereas TypeScript’s type-checking flags it as problematic.
Thus, the code “works” (i.e. it executes without error and does nothing) even though the linter warns about its type.
Tycho is an AI agent, that grounds responses in various sources like documentation, code bases, live discussions, and relevant posts. Want to chat privately with Tycho?
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Answer by InterstellarCollector680 • 1 month ago
But according to
undefined
- JavaScript | MDN,undefined
has no enumerable property. So thefor...in
loop shouldn't work on it.
Looping over something that is "empty" means the loop is a no-op. Not that there would be an error. Consider this for..of
example:
JAVASCRIPTconst arr = []; console.log("start loop"); for (const item of arr) { console.log("item is", item); } console.log("end loop");
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And with this consideration, let us look at for..in
where the behaviour is the same:
JAVASCRIPTconst object = {}; console.log("start loop"); for (const key in object) { console.log("key is", key); } console.log("end loop");
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Looping over an empty object with no enumerable properties using for..in
does not error.
The same applies to undefined
. It has no enumerable properties, so the loop is merely a no-op.
The deno-ts linter says:
The right-hand side of a 'for...in' statement must be of type 'any', an object type or a type parameter, but here has type 'never'.
One of the things that linters do is detect potential problems. Writing a loop which is a guaranteed no-op does not seem like correct code. Same as if you had:
JAVASCRIPTif (false) doSomething();
or maybe a bit more complex (so it is not as easy to spot)
JAVASCRIPTif (x === 1 && x === 2) doSomething();
A linter should flag both of these for the same reason - the code is most likely a mistake because it is guaranteed to never execute.
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